Re: [tied] Re: Indicia of Danubian Origins

--- tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

> But mixed cremation-inhumation is seen also in
> Denmark post the 50
> BCE - 0 incursion (if that is what is was). I
> thought up another
> answer to a question George asked some time back
> (Piotr may find I'm
> toeing the line here, but I think this is pertinent
> to the matter
> under discussion. Please comment if you think
> otherwise): If some
> leader of a hypothetical Alan-related (and therefore
> exclusively
> practising inhumation) invasion ordered that in the
> future all dead
> should be disposed of by cremation, the very fact
> that the order was
> given shows that one of the parties, the invaders or
> the invaded,
> practised the opposite, ie. inhumation, at that
> time. And that party
> was not the invaded who cremated exclusively. That
> the order was not
> followed might have been disobedience caused by lack
> of discipline
> following the beloved leader's early departure from
> the scene.)
>
> Torsten

*****GK: I like the logic in this argumentation.
(Whether logic is enough is another matter though
(:=)))====Note however that the original "cremation
only" order could also have been issued (if such a
thing was issued at all) in the context of a
discussion in the society as to whether inhumation
might also be acceptable. With some "heretic" pointing
to such practices elsewhere and threatening to
implement them in his/her family. The order would thus
confirm traditional practice. Ahhh the sinuosity of it
all....*******

>
>
>

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