Re: [tied] Evidences for a Mediterranean pre-IE Substratum?

On Sat, 23 Feb 2002 13:25:45 +0100, Miguel Carrasquer <mcv@...>
wrote:

>On Sat, 23 Feb 2002 02:37:46 +0100, David Sánchez
><davius_sanctex@...> wrote:
>
>>C. Babaev in his article:
>>http://indoeuro.bizland.com/archive/article8.html - Materials about
>>Iberians and Iberian Languages
>>
>>makes this statement: "The Spanish /s/ sound is somehow special and
>>dissimilar to correspondent phonemes of other Romance tongues. The
>>palatal Iberian consonants which influenced Celtiberian and turned its
>>/s/ into /s^/ (compare Gaulish noun endings /-os, -es, -abos/ with
>>Celtiberian /-os^, -es^, -ubos^/),
>
>We do not know what the Celtiberian (or Iberian) pronunciation was of
>the signs transcribed as <s> and <s'>.

I was wondering about this...

Can rules be given for the use of <s'> vs. <s> in the Celtiberian
inscriptions? Which grammatical endings have <s> and which ones have
<s'>?

=======================
Miguel Carrasquer Vidal
mcv@...