--- In cybalist@..., David Sánchez <davius_sanctex@...> wrote:
>
>
> On the scarce evidence presented here my question is if it is
reasonable
> to think in a Pre-IE Mediterranean Sprachbund with these
> characteristics:
> (i) Existence of al least two voiceless sibilants <s, s'>
> (ii) Tendence to not consider voicedless/voiced contrast as
phonemic (as
> in Basque, in Etruscan, and Iberian)
> (iii) Tendence to aglutination (also in Basque, in Etruscan, and
> Iberian)
>
> David Sánchez
How about this:
Danish has
1) One (arguably two) unvoiced sibilant(s): s, sj
2) Written Danish p,t,k vs. b,d,g are distinguished in anlaut by
aspiration, not voice. I inlaut and auslaut they are not
distinguished at all (which causes a lot of spelling mistakes). Voice
is not phonemic in Danish at all.
3) Swedes tell us we mumble. Example: written <det er ikke ...> "it
is not ... ", spoken <de:ek>. Ball park estimate: about as
agglutinative as French.
Seriously!
This, however, should not lead people to believe that anybody named
Lars is Etrucan! ;-)
Torsten