From: Miguel Carrasquer
Message: 12444
Date: 2002-02-23
>C. Babaev in his article:We do not know what the Celtiberian (or Iberian) pronunciation was of
>http://indoeuro.bizland.com/archive/article8.html - Materials about
>Iberians and Iberian Languages
>
>makes this statement: "The Spanish /s/ sound is somehow special and
>dissimilar to correspondent phonemes of other Romance tongues. The
>palatal Iberian consonants which influenced Celtiberian and turned its
>/s/ into /s^/ (compare Gaulish noun endings /-os, -es, -abos/ with
>Celtiberian /-os^, -es^, -ubos^/),
>(a) In addition I have found a lot of non-Latin words in catalan withAccording to Coromines, <xerinola> (Cast. chirinola) is from the name
>/s^/ = <x> like <xerinola>, <disbauxa>, <xiruca> ... of unkown origin to
>me.
>Also in catalan we have evolutions of s > s^ in some latin words:BASSU should have given Cat. *bas, but the form has been altered under
>Latin *bassu 'short' > catalan <baix> = spanish <bajo>,
>Latin <susu(rrare)> > catalan <xiuxiu(ejar)>, and <pis> 'pee' > catalanOnomatopoeic.
><pixar>.
>I think some of these facts maybe originated in iberian.Hungarian <sz> = /s/ and <s> = /S/, which is another example of the
>Iberian has two voiceless sibilants <s, s'> and also vasque seem to have
>complicated sibilant contrast <s, z, x> (all voiceless sibilants!)
>
>(b) But in fact other european languages have a similar /s'/ to that of
>Spain, namely Greek, Finish, some dialects of Northern Italy, and
>perhaps Sardinian and Corsican. In these zones we now historically have
>existed non-indoeuropean mediterranean languages:
>-Northern Italy: Ligurian (not just Celtoligurian or Lepontic) and
>Rhaetic (Tyrrhenian Family). We now about Tyrrenian family that Etruscan
>have also two voiceless sibilants <s, s'> (and perhaps also Rhaetian?)
>-Greece: Pelasgian and/or Minoan
>-Corsica and Sardinia: Nuragian (Culture of Nuraghe)
>-Finland: perhaps its /s'/ is inherited from proto-uralic, hungarian
>also have <sz> contrasting with <s>?.
>On the scarce evidence presented here my question is if it is reasonableIf this stands for /s/ ~ /S/, it's hardly significant.
>to think in a Pre-IE Mediterranean Sprachbund with these
>characteristics:
>(i) Existence of al least two voiceless sibilants <s, s'>
>(ii) Tendence to not consider voicedless/voiced contrast as phonemic (asDon't know about Iberian, but voiced/voiceless is certainly phonemic
>in Basque, in Etruscan, and Iberian)
>(iii) Tendence to aglutination (also in Basque, in Etruscan, andMost languages can be described as "agglutinative".
>Iberian)