Re: Inguaeonum [was Celtic Jutland]

--- In cybalist@..., "Joseph S Crary" <pva@...> wrote:

> A simple question still remains. If the languages known as Germanic
> are derived from a single root, how could it have developed in two
> geographically discrete regions; one Scandinavia, the other

Germany?

> Can anyone tell me how a single language can develop as a unit in

two

> different regions? To me it makes more sense that the Germanic or

the

> Nordic language group developed in relative isolation for a given
> period, then rapidly expanded to cover a far greater area.
>
> Please any thoughts?
>
>
> JS Crary

Well, if the Odin myth were true (duck and cover!), we would have a
nice explanation: At Pompey's invasion of the area north of the Black
Sea, a group of the first Germanic speakers wander off, leaving some
behind (who become the East Germanic speakers). They go to Germany,
set up a kingdom there (this later became that West Germanic
speakers), Odin handed out land to his nobility (all the -leben place
names in Thuringia), then moved on to Fyn (Odense) where he sets up
yet another kingdom, hands out land (all the -lev, -löv place names),
and sends an expedition to Sweden (these later became the North
Germanic speakers). Nice, huh?

Torsten