Re: [tied] Re: Germanic *fánhan

From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 7113
Date: 2001-04-17

----- Original Message -----
From: MCLSSAA2@...
Sent: Tuesday, April 17, 2001 11:11 AM
Subject: [tied] Re: Germanic *fánhan

> For the `g' in `ganh' I blame the dictionary's printer's mistypist. The F and G keys are next to each other.
Quite possible.

> The `g' is `fang' rather than `fanh' has a valid linguistic explanation :: if the stress inherited from IE came after the fricative, the fricative became voiced.
This works for the past participle and the preterite plural (the latter with minor problems), but in the preterite singular we'd expect either something like the present-tense form (*fa~x-) or (if reduplicated) something really crazy like *feba~x- < *fefánx-. What we actually find is either an analogically restored transparent reduplication (with the effect of Verner's Law cancelled) as in Gothic faifâh or a form mimicking the preterite plural pattern (fe:ng-), whatever its origin.