There are certainly formal and informal forms also in Polish and Latvian.
But there seems to be a split in how the informal / formal form arises.
The most common pattern is where the formal 2nd person singular is the same
as 2nd person plural (eg English, French, Russian, Latvian). In modern
English, the 2nd person informal form (thou) has virtually disappeared. In
France, on the other hand, the informal "tu" is seeing a come-back among
young and middle-aged professsionals.
But there's a second pattern, found in Polish and (I'm told) Spanish, where
the formal form is based on the 3rd person singular (the equivalent of
"would sir like ...").
I've never figured why some languages shifted one way and some the other -
it seems to cut across established linguistic boundaries, which points to
the whole framework being recent innovation (certainly Latin lacks such a
formal / informal structure). There's no clear geographical pattern or
Sprachbund effect. But then there seems nothing in terms of social history,
either, to govern how the formal form arose. After all, what have Poland and
Spain in common that England, Russia and Latvia lack?
And then there's German. 2nd person singular formal based on 3rd person
plural. Where did that spring from?
And why is God always addressed informally - even in English where other
uses of "thou" are extinct?
Sorry, no answers from me. But thanks to David for the interesting question
Andrew Smith
-----Original Message-----
From: Adriana Kamenetsky <
adrianakusa@...>
To:
cybalist@egroups.com <
cybalist@egroups.com>
Date: 03 August 2000 17:59
Subject: Re: [tied] Formal and Informal 2nd Person
>There are formal and informal forms for 2nd person in Russian. Last
century,
>husbands, wives and parents were approached in formal form too.
>----- Original Message -----
>From: "David James" <david@...>
>To: <cybalist@egroups.com>
>Sent: Wednesday, August 02, 2000 5:35 PM
>Subject: [tied] Formal and Informal 2nd Person
>
>
>> Why do so many western Eupopean languages have both formal and
>> informal forms of the 2nd person and am I correct in believing that
>> they are relatively recent phenomena; from the last five or six
>> hundred years perhaps? Did they develop as a result of social change
>> for instance the rise of a landlord class? I sure that Latin did not
>> distinguish between formal and informal address. Also are formal and
>> informal forms found in Slavic, Indic languages as well? Enough
>> questions for now I look forward to your replies.
>> David James
>>
>>
>>