Re: [tied] Underlying Circumflex in Greek

--- In cybalist@..., "P&G" <petegray@...> wrote:

> >What is the evidence for the difference between acute and

circumflex

> >in Greek ever being anything other than a matter of where the

accent

> >is placed?
>
> If the last syllable is long and takes the accent, it may be acute

or

> circumflex. The circumflex is often (?always) the result of

contraction.

> Compare /tro:s/ acute = trojan, and /pho:s/ circumflex = light, the

latter

> from /phaos/.

Writing moraically, and with seven one mora vowels to avoid ambiguity
over ee and oo, the contrast is /trOÓs/ v. /pHÓOs/, a contrast of
placement of the pitch accent. (The letter omega derives from double
omicron.)

The cicumflex does not always arise from contraction. The sequence
of accented long plus short gets the circumflex (except in a few
contractions), thus /pHéuge/ 'flee!', compared to /épHeugon/ 'I was
fleeing'.

Richard.