From: Peter T. Daniels
Message: 6300
Date: 2005-10-19
>I said "it is not a functional mark of the writing system."
> Peter T. Daniels wrote:
> > Agustín Barahona wrote:
> > [...]
> > > In your new message you are not talking about palatalization marks but
> about graphical distinctions.
> > > But I imagine you realize that, as I've said, one thing is to use a sign
> like a visual index in order
> > > to distinguish two signs (like when it's taught to little kids, for
> example) and another very
> > > different one is that that sign is a functional mark of the writing
> system. Otherwise, the rightmost
> > > stroke of "m", for example, could be considered as a mark of the written
> system -as so adequately poin
> >
> > At what point did I _ever_ suggest it's "a functional mark of the
> > writing system"? Its entire function in Spanish is to distinguish the
> > letter for the palatal nasal from the letter for the alveolar nasal.
>
> Well, when you say that "its entire *FUNCTION* is to..." you are in fact
> saying tht it is a "*FUNCTIONAL* mark".
> But I agree with Agustín that tilde in Spanish it is NOT a functional mark,No, it does not mark palatalization. It marks off the palatal phoneme as
> i.e. that it does NOT have a "function".
>
> It indeed is the only distinction between dental (or alveolar!?) "n" and
> palatal "ñ", but you can't call this a "palatalization function".
> If the tilde really had this function, it would probably be usedIt doesn't have that function within the writing system.
> productively to show palatalization in throughout. E.g., the sounds actually
> written "ch", "ll" and "y" would probably be written something like "C with
> tilde", "L with tilde", "G with tilde".
> > I don't see how you can deny that.Except that the right leg of <m> is not an addition to <n>, either
>
> The way Augustín did: the tilde on "ñ" is not a palatalization mark more
> than the righ-hand leg of "m" is a labialization mark. Although, indeed,
> that tilde and that leg are the only things which graphically distinguish a
> palatal "ñ" or a labial "m" from a "n".
> > > By the way, just a minor correction, the "n" is not in Spanish a dentalYou talkin' to me?
> phoneme but an alveolar one.
> >
> > How English of it!
>
> Se l'inglese dei latini non Le piace, perché non continuiamo la discussione
> in italiano o in spagnolo?