El Sat, 01 Oct 2005 00:22:44 -0400, "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@...> escribió:

>> >both the Spanish palatalization mark/Portuguese [...]
>> I must insist again that -as I already said on 26 Sep 2005
>>21:05:50- in Spanish writing there is no palatalization mark. As
>>far as I was taught, the swung dash over the "ñ" is, simplifying,
>>only a sign pointing out a Latin ancient double "n" abbreviation.
>>It is not a sign used to indicate palatalization. Our palatal phonemes
>>are those represented by "ñ" (eñe), "ll" (elle), "y" (i griega) and
>>"ch" (che) and, as you all can see, no one but "ñ" uses the swung dash.
>The only function of the Spanish tilde is to indicate the palatalization
>of n.

And, taking in account what I've already said (i.e., that the swung dash, "tilde virgulilla", is in Spanish only a remainder of an ancient Latin abbreviation of the "nn" and that it seems logical enough it's not a palatalization mark because anyone can see that none of the other palatal phonemes are represented with that kind of sign), would yo be so kind as to say us what are your arguments to assert what you say above? Thank you in advance.

Agustín Barahona