Richard Wordingham wrote:

>
> --- In qalam@yahoogroups.com, "Peter T. Daniels" <grammatim@...> wrote:
> > > Another important factor is how people classify their own system.
> > > Indic scripts are generally called aksharas, While this may have
> > > originally had a meaning like 'a' to 'z' or 'a' to 'ksha', it is
>
> > Do you have any evidence for this "interpretation" of the word? The word
> > meant 'syllable' long before it was used for the writing system. What's
> > the Indo-European etymology?
>
> See the replies to http://groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/7692 .

No, I'm not going to read through nine messages, and who knows how many
responses to them, in hopes of possibly finding a useful nugget.

Is there an answer -- from a respectable Indo-Europeanist -- or not?
--
Peter T. Daniels grammatim@...