From: Alexander Savenkov
Message: 3798
Date: 2004-12-23
> Nicholas Bodley wrote:Actually, this is wrong. I'm sure it's better to distinguish between
>> My father's first language was Russian, and his neat English
>> handwriting used overscores for [m] and [n]. [...]
>> After he passed on, I later noticed that (iirc) Bulgarian and
>> (definitely) Serbian script (even typeset text?) uses the
>> overscore for (m), at least
> Actualy, handwritten Cyrillic uses overscores over <т> (t) and <п> (p),
> which look identical to Latin handwritten <m> and <n>, respectively.
> The overscores are functional to distinguish these two letters fromNot necessarily. If your handwriting allows you to see the difference,
> <ш> (sh) and <и> (i), which look just the same to the two above,
> when handwritten.
> In Latin script, a similar confusion may arise between <m> and <w> andSimilarly: from his Russian hand(writing).
> between <n> and <u>, and that's probably why your father borrowed the
> overscores from his Cyrillic hand.