From: Muke Tever
Message: 3553
Date: 2004-09-08
>> Actually there shouldn't be any conflict. The Catalan middle[Given that this is not a problem in Catalan, but assuming a pa·ral·lel language in which this is the case...]
>> dot _does_ represent a syllable/hyphenation break, and (if I
>> understand correctly) is replaced by a hyphen when actually
>> used at a line break.
>
> The fact that the two symbols have the same semantics does not mean that
> there is no conflict. On the contrary, that makes the conflict even more
> confusing: they have the same shape, the same meaning, so how is the reader
> supposed to know which ones are part of the orthography and which ones are
> just part of the dictionary's orthophonic symbols?
>
> E.g., when you see an entry such a as "pa·ral·lel", how are you supposed to
> know that the first middle dot should be removed in writing, while the
> second should be retained?
> We have a similar problem in Italian with acute and grave accents: some ofMy Italian-English dictionary (1959) uses a similar sign to American English dictionaries for stress, thus _esempio_'s headword is "esemʹpio". As for differentiating open and closed o and e, it uses the orthographic marks when they are part of the orthography and it italicizes the e or o in question if it isn't. (This is distinctive, but not particularly mnemonic; I always forget whether the italic letter is supposed to represent the closed or open vowel.)
> them are mandatory in the Italian orthography (such as the acute on "però" =
> 'but': "pero" means 'pear tree'), while others are only used on dictionaries
> to show the position of the accent (such as the one on "esèmpio").
>
> Old dictionaries (and some geographic atlases even today) used the acute for
> mandatory accents and the grave as phonetic symbol.