>However, in the Septuagint, it looks as if a Greek 'omega' was used
>as an equivalent for Hebrew 'vav'. Did 'omega' have a latent 'v'
>sound?
>
>
No (well, actually maybe; I wouldn't know), but vav does have an "o"
sound. In addition to its consonant sound, it is also one of the matres
lectionis, used to represent a vowel sound of "o" or "u" (depending on
the diacritics).