Piotr Gasiorowski wrote:

> I don't think so, but then I was explicitly instructed by my RP
> pronunciation teachers to avoid the glottal stop in such cases. Let's
> hear the opinion of our native English-speakers (the avoidance of [?]
> may well be a dialectal phenomenon).

For my dialect (Australian), glottal stops are inserted after a
pause/beginning of an utterance(?) or before a word with particular
emphasis.* After a pure vowels (incl. air, ear; excl. he, who, hay,
hoe), a [r\] is inserted before a vowel. After a diphthong, a homorganic
glide is inserted before a vowel. A consonant before a vowel might be
ambisyllabic.

It's very definitely ["wan'I:(@)], ["t_hi\u\w'I:z]

*: Even if the vowel is dropped phonetically (in an unstressed
syllable), the glottal stop may remain here.

--
Tristan <kesuari@...>