Re: Paali question
From: Ole Holten Pind
Message: 2672
Date: 2009-10-26
Hi Bryan, 國音 translates janapadanirukti = Paali janapadanirutti i.e. the
speech of the janapada. nirukti or nirutti has nothing to do with
pronunciation. There is sufficient textual evidence that indicates that
either terms denotes any given word , name or designation of, for instance,
the Buddhist dharma. nirutti is, for instance, presented as a synonym of
naama in the Paali canon, our oldest source.
Regards,
Ole Pind
----- Original Message -----
From: "Bryan Levman" <bryan.levman@...>
To: <palistudy@yahoogroups.com>
Sent: Thursday, October 22, 2009 11:03 PM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] Paali question
Hi Stephen,
Yes the Chinese seem to take it more in the sense of chandas as chanting or
reciting according to rule, as you will see. But when Buddha talks about
guóyīn (in the Mahii"saasaka Vinaya 國音) he seems to be referring to the
local Prakrit. Lamotte translates as "in keeping with the dialectal
pronunciation" (prade"sa-svara) and Levi as "Je permets qu'on recite comme
on parle dans chaque royaume." Let me know if you come up with any other
versions. I've been looking for a BHS and Tibetan version but haven't found
one yet,- does the MahasaMghika Vinaya exist in BHS or just in Chinese?
Best wishes, Bryan
________________________________
From: Stephen Hodge <s.hodge@...>
To: palistudy@yahoogroups.com
Sent: Thu, October 22, 2009 4:00:06 PM
Subject: Re: [palistudy] Paali question
Dear Bryan,
Thank you for the Taisho references. I'll have a look at the passages with
interest, but the presence of the incident / quotation in these Vinayas is
not so surprising given the derivational relationship of those schools. As
Lamotte has not given anything for the Mahasanghika Vinaya, I assume that
there is no such ruling found there, which suggests that it was interpolated
after the big schism, but before the other schools went their seperate ways.
I wonder if this ruling was perhaps created contra the Mahasanghikas,
although their early material was also in a Prakrit so that would probably
be unlikely. On the other hand, not everybody reads the key term in this
ruling as equivalent "Sanskrit".
Best wishes,
Stephen Hodge
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