> Dear friends,have both directed me with the following:
> Mr. Tisinli and Mr. M. Hubey
> "I would like to see Mr.Polat Kaya show me why Turkish "acele eder" -- for the sake > of argument, I will assume that acele is not a loan word -- is not from "accelerate"? (If "acele eder" can be anagramatized from "accelerate" so as the latter can be from the
> First of all, if I may say so, this is a distraction fromthe main topic. Anyone claiming that Turkish is an anagram of Latin has to do his own defending of the idea as I have been defending my claim that Latin and Greek and their derivatives were anagrammatized from Turkish. Additionally, I never said that "acele eder" was anagrammatized from "accelerate", I said it was the other way around.
> I shared witheveryone in this forum that "accelerate" is an anagram of Turkish "ecele eder" (acele eder). Now the idea is being put forward saying that Turkish "ecele eder" may be the anagram of English "accelerate" and hence Turkish may be claimed to be anagrammatized from Latin. I say this was not the case for Turkish. First of all, one cannot apply mathematics to linguistics so readily. I realize that in mathematics, if A = B and B = C, then we can say that A = C; however this type of thinking cannot be applied to linguistics. The words of a language cannot be likened to the terms of a mathematical equation. Words are the product of deliberate assignment of names to concepts. They are influenced by culture, beliefs, language-lifespan, history, environment and many other factors.
> However, if B and C weredesigned to be totally different from A, which is very likely, then they would have far less loan words from A but far more words and phrases from A anagrammatized into them. Take the modern example of computer languages. It cannot be denied that computer languages like COBOL and C, which were developed after Fortran, took much from FORTRAN (and even BASIC).
> In other words,FORTRAN served as the model language for the development of other computer languages. This is exactly what I am saying about the Turkish language in relation to other languages.
> Turkish was the most ancient language.Why? Because Turkish was present at least with the Sumerian and the so-called ancient "Egyptian" languages some 7000 years ago. The name "BILGAMESH" (so-called GILGAMESH) is one giant testament to that.
> And today, to furtherbury that ancient one language (Turkish) deeper into the ground, the so-called name "NOSTRATIC" has been coined as the "proto-language" - as if it represents a language different from Turkish.
>Turkish "acele" could not have been derived from Latin orEnglish to
> Turks are not in the habit ofconfusing, or anagrammatizing other languages. Even in the most recent Turkish Ottoman empire, all ethnic groups were allowed to keep and maintain their languages. The Ottoman Turks did not confuse or obliterate their languages. The most they did was to take some loan words and retain them in their original format, i.e., not anagrammatized.
> Therefore stating that Turkish could be claimed asbeing anagrammatized from Latin or any other language is not realistic.
> The question may come tomind: "Why are there many so-called Arabic and Persian
>Additionally,Genesis 11 admits that the world was speaking "ONE
> Furthermore, if it was their own language, they would not want toconfuse their language or themselves. It must be understood that the confusers were secretly confusing somebody elses language. <Snip> So the Turs/Turks were not doing the confusion. They would not want to do such a thing to their own language and to themselves.
> To conclude, I say that Turkish words are not anagrams ofwords or phrases from other languages because Turkish was the proto language itself where even the term "PROTO" is an anagram of Turkish "BIR-ATA".