Re: sumer IV-notes

--- In Nostratica@yahoogroups.com, "H.M. Hubey" <hubeyh@...> wrote:

> > IV. Sumerian r/ vs Turkic z/
> Despite PA "to dig" being reconstructed as *karu/*karo, and despite

PU

> also being
> constructed similary, there are still "well-known" Turkologists who
> still try to pass of the
> lark, that PT was sh-z. That would imply that *kar came from *kaz

and

> that words like
> karim /garim (canal e.g. digged thing) should have come from *kazim
> despite total
> lack of evidence and being totally against laws of linguistics.

Could you expand on that, please. You seem to be saying that z > r
is inherently impossible, but it is assumed for Latin (final step in
change of intervocalic PIE *s to /r/) and North and West Germanic
(conditional PIE *s > Proto-Germanic *z by Werner's law, and then *z

> /r/). In the case of North Germanic, this *z appears in runic

inscriptions, where it is distinct from /s/ and /r/. (Gothic merged
*z with *s.) As far as I can make out from the phonological sketch
of Mak at the Rosetta Project, the change [z] > [r] is in progress in
Mak.

Do Proto-Turkic reconstructions work with /r/ in place of /z/?

Richard.