From: magwich78
Message: 563
Date: 2003-05-31
> On Sat, 31 May 2003 05:03:46 +0000, Rob <magwich78@...> wrote:Is this based on the Hungarian "subjective" conjugation? What
>
> >Did Proto-Uralic have a stative paradigm?
>
> Yes, sort of. The instransitive-subjective conjugation has
>
> 1. *-k
> 2. *-n
>
> (details to follow)
>
>By "Western Indo-European," do you mean three by-then-independent
> We have the shift SOV > SVO/VSO in Western Indo-European (VSO in
> [Insular] Celtic) simultaneoulsy with a trend away from flexional
> towards isolating (English is a fine example). Why can't the same
> thing have happened in Northern Afro-Asiatic?
>