There is a case for an ancient plural anaphoric pronoun in nV-. I
believe such a form exists in some Uralic languages, and in Ancient
Egyptian plural demonstrative n3. So, the 3rd pl ending can be
analyzed as *-n(e)-t. Assuming that the -t is another pronominal
element like in the 3rd sg, why would such a redundance occur?
- Rob
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