From: jdcroft
Message: 565
Date: 2002-04-15
--- In nostratic@..., "Glen Gordon" <glengordon01@...> wrote:
>
> The debate continues between Alexander and I:
> >>I estimate that Dravidian is seperated from Altaic and
IndoEuropean by
> >>about 7000 years. Dravidian and AfroAsiatic
> >>are seperated by 10,000 years. The least amount of pleading
> >>would involve a comparison between IndoEuropean and Altaic,
> >>a seperation of only 5000 years.
> >
> >I wonder what a technique do you use to obtain these figures?
> >Is it a formula, or an algorithm, or just a complex expert
estimation?
> >Please share it, it's really interesting.
>
> Well, even if we put aside the numbers, Altaic is certainly closer
> to IE than to Dravidian or to AA. This requires linguistic knowledge
> of some kind and cannot be replaced with "algorithms" or "formulae".
> Linguistics, like sociology or psychology, is too "human" and
> unpredictable to be calculated at. The dates I arrive at, therefore,
> are simply estimations based on how I understand the spread of
> Nostratic and the internal relationships of the various Nostratic
> language groups.
>
> My understanding of Nostratic is brought about by combining the
> likeliest current theories I have come across together to form
> a larger theoretical picture, a la Occam's Razor. By studying a
> little, we will notice clearly that it is more generally accepted
> that IE and Altaic are more closely related to each other than
> IE is to AA. For example, it's easier to see the similarities
> between IE and Altaic pronouns much easier than between IE and AA.
>
>
> >However I would be surprised if there were many ManchuTungusic
> >sheep-words there. Practically all the existing now languages of
> >this group [...] are spoken by folks who live in taiga, practice
> >reindeer-breeding, and normally never see a sheep during the whole
> >life (before XIX cent.). Why should they keep a word, if there is
> >no object to designate?
>
> True enough, although it looks here as though one is using a lack
> of evidence as a proof.
>
>
> >>In fact, afaik, I don't recall Proto-Altaic nomads doing any
> >>farming.
> >[A]
> >I think PROTO-Altaic people were not nomads.
>
> I don't think I'm following what you're saying. What were they
> before they were pastoral nomads and where in the world do you
> place these people geographically? Are you saying that they were
> once Central Asian farmers but had lost their way of life much
> like refugees from the lost continent of Mu? :P
>
>
> >>Where did they get the lambs?
> >
> >[...] Yes, you are right - Altaic people could get lambs only
there, where
> >sheep was domesticated and where all the Nostratic
> >folks origin from - at the Near East. [...]
> >In the 3rd millennium BC in a culture on the Western edge of the
>Chinese
> >civilization [...] sheep and cattle appeared! There were
> >no wild progenitors of these animals there.
>
> Then you must accept that these terms are loanwords from another
> language.
>
>
> >Whom could be those people who brought lambs ultimately from the
> >Near East to China?
> >I can't find any serious answer but ALTAIC-speaking ones.
>
> Really? That's not a serious enough answer for me since you're
> forgetting about all the north Eurasian languages that Altaic is
> closely related to. (??!)
>
> As far as I am concerned, this _is_ a loanword, and it comes from
> some southern language that Altaic or later languages were in
> contact with in the past.
>
> If we are to accept Altaic *kur'i, why couldn't it come indirectly
> from Dravidian via intermediate languages? Something like the
> following could have happened somewhere between 5000 and 3000 BCE:
>
> Dravidian *kuri > LanguageX *kuri > Altaic *kur'i
>
> Hmm. Gee, that's getting me titulated. What language could it be?
> Burushaski? Does anybody have a Burushaski dictionary?
>
> Anyways, just some more thoughts to ponder.
>
>
> - love gLeN
>
>
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