From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 29
Date: 2001-04-08
----- Original Message -----From: proto-languageSent: Sunday, April 08, 2001 9:19 PMSubject: Re: [nostratic] ouralique et IE
[PR]
Why should Uralic *koki derive from *Hokw- when we have German *gukjan? similarly, why *kulki from *kwelH- when we know it was reduplicated at a very early date: *kwel-kwel- > *kulki?