From: llama_nom
Message: 6209
Date: 2006-04-21
>where
>> "The pronoun 'þit'
>> acquired its 'þ' from this verb ending due to confusion over
>> oneSæll Uoden,
>> word ended and the next began."
> Hi LLama Non,
> By my ancestors one word contained only one vowel.
> So by natives this has even
> never been problem of understanding each other.
>> >> "Komið!", "Farið!", Come!, Go!. Here -ið refers to "þið" youpronoun 'þit'
>plural.
>
>
>>> Hi Uoden,
>>>
>>> I guess you know all this, but just to elabourate: Modern
>>> Icelandic 'þið' "you" pl. was earlier 'þit' "you (two)", earlier
>>> still 'it' (cf. Old English 'git'). The 2nd person plural verb
>>> ending -ið goes back to Proto-Germanic -iþ or -id. The >>>
>>> acquired its 'þ' from this verb ending due to confusion overwhere one
>>> word ended and the next began.is, but
>>>
>>> komiþ it > komiþit > komi þit / komiþ þit (=komið þit).
>>>
>>> Likewise the old 2nd person plural:
>>>
>>> komiþ ér > komiþér > komi þér / komiþ þér (=komið þér).
>>>
>>> Some English examples of this sort of thing: an eke-name ('eke' =
>>> Icelandic 'auk') > a nickname; a norange > an orange (cf.
>>> Arabic 'naaranj', Persian 'naarang').
>>>
>>> I don't know how old the change of unstressed final 't' to 'ð'
>>> I think it must go back at least to the 13th century, eventhough the
>>> standardized/normalized Old Norse spelling used in moderntextbooks
>>> uses forms like 'þit', 'kallat' for MnIc. 'þið', 'kallað'.
>>>
>>> Lama Nom