--- llama_nom <600cell@...> wrote:

>
> --- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, LM
> <lavrans@...> wrote:
>
> > Wow! THE Kiyo? With the incredible website?
> >
> > What a great resource!
> >
> > Thank you so much for your work!
> >
> > Larry Miller
>
>
>
> Absolutely. Just like to add my awe and thanks to
> Larry's. In case
> anyone hasn't come across "Kiyo's Norse Links" yet,
> I strongly
> recommend you look at this:
>
> http://home.ix.netcom.com/%7Ekyamazak/lk-norse.htm
>
>
>
>
> > kiyo9tails wrote:
> >
> > > Wow, much thanks to Llama Nom for digging up so
> much information.
> > > I will make the due corrections on my webpages.
>
>
> That's alright. Glad to be of use.
>
>
> > > I was vaguely aware that "ce" in Old English was
>
> pronounced "che" or
> > > [tS-e] because I listened to a recording of the
> poem "Deor" in
> which
> > > there occurs the line "Eormanrices" =
> "Ermanaric's"; Ermanaric
> being
> > > of course Jörmunrekr of the Eddas and the
> Volsunga saga.
>
>
> Okay, these are the rules for when <ce> = [tSe] in
> OE (not counting
> the combination <sc>), according to Campbell's Old
> English Grammar.
> At least this is how I understand them... They work
> most of the
> time, but not always. Some exceptions are due to
> analogy with parts
> of the paradigm where different rules applied.
> Another exception is
> the middle consonant of <cieken> "chicken", as
> indicated by the
> spelling in the Mercian Rushworth Gospells, a unique
> scibal attempt
> at distinguishing the front and back pronunciations
> of <c>. This
> can't be due to analogy with other parts of the
> paradigm, but might
> be accounted for by dissimilation. Anyway, here are
> the rules.
> (For <ce>, read <ce> or <cce>.)
>
> 1. <ce> = [ke] if the <e> is due to i-umlaut of a
> back vowel.
> 2. <ce> = [ke] within a word, if preceeded by a back
> vowel.
> 3. <ce> = [ke] if the <e> arose before a continuant
> that was
> originally syllabic (e.g. æcer "acre" < Proto OE
> *ækr).
>
> 4. Otherwise <ce> did result in the affricate [tS].
> Before a
> stressed syllable this became <cie> in Early West
> Saxon. In late WS
> the same combination is often spelt <cy> (but also
> <ce>, <cie> and
> <ci>).
>
> Some OE textbooks print a dot above <c> in words
> like 'bæc'
> and 'æcer'. This indicates that they are thought to
> have been
> palatal stops in early OE, something like [c], as in
>
> Icelandic 'kenna'. According to Campbell, in such
> positions, <c>
> never evolved into [tS], but instead reverted to
> [k]. Regarding
> Rule One, don't forget that /æ/ counts as a front
> vowel, so if <e>
> is due to i-umlaut of /æ/, this would result in
> affrication.
>
> I THINK that's more or less everything...
>
> Llama Nom
>

In most of the texts I have come accross a dotted <c>
represents the affricate <tS>

example from Sweet's Anglo-Saxon Primer would be for
the anglo saxon chronicle: "Hēr Martiānus
and Valentinīnus on•fēngon riċe..."
where the word for kingdom, riċe, would be
pronounced <ritSe> in ipa.
My old english teacher

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