From: xigung
Message: 5158
Date: 2005-04-15
--- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, "llama_nom" <600cell@...> wrote:
>
> --- In norse_course@yahoogroups.com, "xigung" <xigung@...> wrote:
>
> > Here is mentioned the "taking by the hand".
> > I wonder if it, at the time, was customary to "shake hands",
> > in the same manner as is done today? In that case, why not
> > write "the king shook his hand"?
> > I also notice that the name "Audun" is given in dative,
> > the same case as "honum". In English it would be more natural
> > to use the genitive, as in "he shook Audun's hand", but here
> > we have an example of a pronoun and a proper name juxtaposed both
> with
> > the same case. The case (dative) must be due to the standard
> > expression "taka e-m à hönd" (to shake someone's hand).
> > I suppose the dative may be due to the possibility of
> > inserting the preposition "á", since "taka" (to take, grab)
> > normally rules the accusative. But you don't "take" someone's
> > hand as you would take or catch a ball or a prisoner.
> > (the ball out of the air, the prisoner into the jail)
> > (Grr.. May I now have my hand back, please? :-)
>
>
> "Shake hands", I wonder if they did. I suppose if we're not sure
> whether they shook hands or just grasped them, to "take one's hand",
> or similar, might be an acceptably vague compromise. But even if it
> was an anachronism you could maybe justify "shake hands" as
> translating the intent and cultural meaning of the gesture.
>
> 'taka á e-u' "touch", but 'hönd' is acc., so this must be something
> different. There's the idiom '[EXTERNAL BODY PART] á e-m' = "s-
> one's...". But neither seems to be quite the same thing as 'taka á
> hönd e-m', which is more like: kyssa á hönd e-m "kiss one´s hand [in
> homage]". Also: taka í hönd e-m "join hands with s-one".
>
> höfða, að, [höfuð], to ' head, ' but esp. used as a law term, to
> sue, prosecute; h. mál, sök á hönd e-m, to bring an action against.
>
>
>
> > >
> > > Ãá lét konungr gøra honum laug ok gaf honum sÃðan klæði,
> ok er hann
> > nú með honum.
> > Why not simply use the English "let" here?
> > i.e. The king let [the servants] prepare a bath for him.
> > In fact, to me the word "caused" seems so formal here, as to
> > be misplaced. Wouldn't "The king had them prepare a bath"
> > sound less formal? Anyway, you decide.
>
>
> I would go with "had them prepare a bath" -- to me "let" would
> suggest that the bath was someone else's idea and the king just gave
> them permission.
>
> Llama Nom