But I STILL don't know how to decline a lone
adjective denoted a person who has been referred
to by a neuter noun previously:

"A man sees a good woman"
Ma�r s�r g�� v�f(n). (guessed at acc.neut.decl.)

"The man chases the good (woman)"
Ma�rinn eltir g��(f/n?).

(sorry for the choice of content - with our
vocabulary so far, one doesn�t have alot of
choice...)

So, the man sees a woman, the word for which in
the sentence just happens to be neuter (v�f).
Next, he chases her, but refers to her with an
adjective describing her rather than a noun
naming her. Should the adjective decline to agree
with the previously named noun or with the
anatomical sex of the woman?

It�s just like my pronoun question - I�ve seen in
saga examples that Haukur has posted that
pronouns refering to people typically decline to
the anatomical sex of the respective person
(rather than the grammatical gender of the
previously named noun).

Ma�r s�r g�� v�f(n).
Ma�rinn eltir hana(f).

BUT, does the same apply to adjectives? It would
seem rather strange to decline "g��" neutrally
with v�f in the first sentence, but then suddenly
decline the same word feminine in the second when
refering to the same person. Changing gender when
using a pronoun in the second sentence would not
have been so strange, as the pronoun was not
mentioned in the first sentence.


=====
Kindest Regards,
- DeepStream
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