Re: On Greek thalassa 'sea'

2013/1/29, stlatos <sean@...>:

>
>
> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Bhrihskwobhloukstroy wrote:
>>
>> Since the obvious epenthetical plosive is voiced /d/, I fail to
>> understand
>> how could it be that we get a voiceless aspirate unless through a sort of
>> double sound shift by which one would expect at least /ph/ if not
>> anything
>> more instead of /p/ of -pos
>
>
> There are many words showing t/dH alt. before r:
>
>
> vártra-m S; vart = shield Os; vs
> várdhra-s = strap/girdle/belt S;

two suffixes; if they have common origin, it's */th/, not */d/

>
> árthron = joint G; vs
> artus -u:s L; ard -u- = order Ar;

Armenian /rd/ < */rt/

>
> tetró:konta Dor G; cethorcho OI; vs
> quadrá:ginta: L; kHaRasun = 40 Ar;

This isn't before */r/ because there's */w/ between */t/ and */r/

>
> dragan OE; draw E; vs
> trahere L;

Different roots; You can't base a sound law on such forms, at most
they can be the same before PIE, just like English foot and pedestrian
aren't transformation of the same synchronically underlying form

>
> þragjan = run Go; vs
> trékho: () threkso: (fut) = run G; dredh = turn/twist/revolve Al; daRnam =
> (re)turn Ar;

Different roots

>
> ané:r andrós (g) anéres (p) G; vs
> ánthro:pos G; [analogy as if an- = not/bad ?] dró:ps Mac;

This was the demonstrandum

>
>
>>
>> 2013/1/29 Joao S. Lopes
>>
>> > **
>> >
>> >
>> >
>> > Why would kH- > (instead of gH- > ) in:
>> >
>> > kharopós \ kharo:pós = fierce G; kháro:n = lion Mac;
>> >
>> > > therefore no need for "opt." (ánthro:pos <
>> > > *h2endH-ro-h3kW-o-s has no connection with dró:ps)
>> >
>> > and how could this not be < andr- anér- ?
>> >
>> > I've always considered the possibility of a dialectal or substratal
>> > shift
>> > *nr>*nTr in anthropos, relating it to aner, andros.
>> >
>> > JS Lopes
>
>
>