Re: Basque onddo

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <bm.brian@...> wrote:

>
> Presumably because the Latin (or Romance) sibilant sounded
> more like the Basque laminal sibilant than like the Basque
> apical sibilant.
>
> > I don't think so. In ancient loanwords, Latin/Romance
> > apical /s'/ systematically corresponds to Basque laminal
> > sibilant /s/.
>
> That would support what I said.
>

But like Northern Iberian and Occitan Romances, Basque has an apical
/s'/, so the question remains why it didn't use it, behaving like std
Portuguese and southern varieties of Spanish, which only have /s/,
presumably from its Mozarabic substrate.