Re: PIE suffix =t in food?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "dgkilday57" <dgkilday57@...> wrote:

> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Brian M. Scott" <bm.brian@> wrote:

>> At 9:17:25 PM on Monday, October 29, 2012, dgkilday57 wrote:

>>> Finnish/Estonian <olut> suggests that Germanic was not the
>>> immediate source, but another IE language provided the
>>> word to both Finnic and Germanic.

>> Why?

> Finnish <rengas>, <kuningas>, and the like do not change Gmc. */a/
> to /o/.

But that's clearly not dispositive: those instance of Gmc. *a aren't
under the accent and aren't followed by *u. I don't know whether
either of these differences matters, but I certainly don't know that
they *don't* matter. The *-u- later caused u-umlaut in ON, and
Finnish has vowel harmony, so I'd want the opinion of someone
well-versed in the Uralic side. I know that Schalin takes <olut> to
be a borrowing from either Gmc. or Baltic, so apparently from that
side the idea isn't prima facie absurd.

Brian