Re: Mapping the Origins and Expansion of the Indo-European Language

From: shivkhokra
Message: 70088
Date: 2012-09-22

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Francesco Brighenti" <frabrig@...> wrote:
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>
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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, Rick McCallister <gabaroo6958@> wrote:
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> > Sanskrit didn't appear until long after the invasion of India. I'm
> > guessing c. 500 BCE, shortly before writing made its way to India.
> > Old Indian was previously spoken. Before Old Indian, Indo-Iranian
> > was spoken perhaps 500 years before the invasion of India but
> > others know much more than I do.



>It is not a direct descendant of Vedic Sanskrit, but of some other Old Indic dialect(s) spoken in NW South Asia in the same time Vedic Sanskrit was spoken there.
>

What is the evidence for classical sanskrit not being a direct descendant of Vedic Sanskrit?

> All this is unbeknownst to our Shivraj, who continues to equate Vedic Sanskrit and Epic/Classical Sanskit as if they were one and the same language.
>

Reminding you again that you are putting words in my mouth. Please show where I have written this.


>Indeed, when you, Richard, wrote "Sanskrit is a fully developed court language and could only have developed after a group of Indo-Aryans formed a sophisticated polity" (a sentence with which I agree), Shivraj immediately asked, "Whose court? What kings do we have between the steppes and India before Aryans invaded India?", thus, showing he does not understand what you're talking about.
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Why don't you tell us in what court or "polity" did Vedic Sanskrit and Classical Sanskrit develop in since you agree with "Sanskrit is a fully developed *court* language and could only have developed after a group of Indo-Aryans formed a sophisticated *polity*".



Regards,
Shivraj