Re: Latin c- > Romance g-, any explanation?

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Tavi" <oalexandre@...> wrote:

> I hope you don't naïvely assume that because French (not "France" as
> somebody said) has a Gaulish substrate, its phonological system was also
> modelled after Celtic. Rather on the contrary, French is a Romance
> language with a *Germanic* phonology from its Frankish superstrate.

And why can't French have had a Celtic-type phonology as an intermediate stage?

Richard.