From: Torsten
Message: 68520
Date: 2012-02-09
>
> Torsten et al:
> I wonder about the idea of satemization at the earliest levels ofwith loans - yes, otherwise no.
> Balto-Slavic --because it would, of necessity, crop up in Germanic
> --wouldn't it?
> You may wish to think about satemization more in terms of time thanThis is what I think happened:
> genetic relationships (branches). Given that Germanic (centum) is
> most closely related to Balto-Slavic and Greek (centum) is generally
> seen as part of a Graeco-Armeno-Indo-Iranian group, then perhaps
> satemization occurred sometime around 2,000 BCE, give or take 500
> years or so, shortly after Germanic moved away from Balto-Slavic and
> Greek from its congeners. One could perhaps see satemization as an
> adstrate in Balto-Slavic from Indo-Iranian, hence the incompleteness
> of the process. Now, it could well be that there was a later
> re-centumization from Germanic, Venetic, et al., but I don't buy the
> idea of a Balto-Slavic-Indo-Iranian node.
> Please correct me and explain if you disagree.