From: stlatos
Message: 68430
Date: 2012-01-27
>In my notes it's:
>
> Without knowing the exact details of the soundlaws which governed borrowing, I still find it implausible (i.e. unprincipled) that an IE word with four consonants would enter Arabic (or any Semitic language) with only three. Note for example Hebrew <pilleges> 'courtesan, concubine' which is identical to Doric <pallax>, Latin <paelex>, etc. The ultimate source is unknown, but Hebrew-speakers did not squeeze out one consonant in order to fit the triliteral system. Plenty of words in Sem. lgs. exist outside the triliteral system.
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