Re: Pashto 'foot'

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@...> wrote:

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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
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> > --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "stlatos" <stlatos@> wrote:
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> > > Does anyone know the standard explanation (or any) for why Pashto ps.a \ px.a 'foot' contains s. ?
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> > Since there's also alt. in Khowàr pòng = foot ; KAmvíri pr.ó~ = foot of cow/horse < * p(r.)ANkÀ ; and in Nuristani there's opt. s. > r. (as in pir.í Sa; pr.ía = vagina Kv; < * piiz.-d.ó+ < * psixY-d.ó+ = swollen ) ; I'd say ps.a < * pYs.ed*+ < * pYis.ed*+ < * pYised*+ = impression / imprint > foot print / footstep (as in Skt pi:d.- = press ) .
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> Most languages show the form with opt. ps > pF , etc. Usually, pF > pxW , and so is often invisible from studying one language by itself.
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> The PIE form is from unaccented i>0 / # CY_$ C
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Whether F>xW or not, it has nothing to do with e>o. All CW and P change an e they contact w/in a syllable to ö , then opt. > e/o .