Re: masters and slaves again

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "tgpedersen" <tgpedersen@...> wrote:

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> --- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, george knysh <gknysh@> wrote:
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> > Any chance the terms "Argaragantes" (incl. variants) and "Limigantes" could be understood as latinized versions of Gothic plurals "argaragans" and "limigans" (with the first portion being of Iranic provenance, as explained by Francesco Brighenti in message 64571) ? (I'm looking at various texts dealing with Danubian area events in the 4th century).
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> Unlikely. -ans is the m.pl.acc. ending, not nom. I don't think there are any examples of Latin -antes from Germanic *-ans.

****GK: What about this example of "weak declension" nominative plural? Cf. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gothic_language /at "guma"/
I was imagining a Roman hearing a Goth lamely describing the Limigantes as "limigans" and 'correcting" this to Limigantes (since Limigans would sound like a singular form).****

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> Torsten
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