Re: Where and how developed die Jiddische Sproch

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "t0lgsoo1" <guestuser.0x9357@...> wrote:

>
>
> >As everybody knows, Ostmitteldeutsch is spoken in Thuringia and
> >Silesia
> >http://tinyurl.com/35l96fj
> >and not in 'the Alpine regions of Austria and Bavaria', where they
> >speak Oberdeutsch (characterized ia. by *-w -> -b-).
>
> Of course. But I all the time underlined the "order" of importance
> of those dialects.

I wasn't blaming you, but that compiler of Mieses who I hope didn't himself mix up facts that way.

> I've never asserted that only Bavarian would be accountable for any
> influence. Like it or not, Yiddish is closer to Bavarian than to
> Silezian and Thuringian, bec. of many peculiarities. On the other
> hand, Thuringian and Silezian are very close to Babarian and
> Suebian, way closer than Low German (of Bremen, Hamburg, Kiel,
> Schleswig-Holstein, Rostock) is to Bavarian and Yiddish. (But this
> is a common place.)

Yes. And irrelevant, since I was not referring to your opinions.

> On top of that, those people (like Kutschera, Mieses etc.) pointed
> out (as the theory goes) that Yiddish evolved to a great extent not
> only in the southern parts of the Holy Empire, but also in Poland
> where Jews learnt German both from Christian and Jewis Germans.

They don't point out, the assume, like everyone else.

> (Even to think only a second that Przeworks times Germanic idioms
> may have continuated in Poland *directly* thus generating Yiddish,
> is absurd or it sounds as if you were making fun.)

Yawn.


Torsten