From: johnvertical@...
Message: 65874
Date: 2010-02-18
> > > How exactly does that work in geographical terms? Wouldn'tInteresting.
> > > pre-IE have been spoken thousands of kilometers away from the
> > > "Nordwestblock" area?
>
> I'll have to modify the reference to pre-IE. Actually I think that the whole
> -í:-/´-i-/-i-´ (-> -éi-/´-i-/-i-´) -> -éi-/´-oi-/-i-´,
> -ú:-/´-u-/-u-´ (-> -óu-/´-u-/-u-´) -> -éu-/´-ou-/-u-´
> thing took place not between PPIE and PIE, but in the individual IE branches, in spite of the traditional notation (eg. Pokorny) of these roots as having -eu- and -ei-. Latin has no -eu-, for instance.
> the reason why this development could take place in several branches independently, is that it is a generalization from something already existing in PIE, namely the ablaut PIE -é-/´-o-/--´ from PPIE -á:-/´-a-/--´.Optimally we'd like to explain some reflexes without resorting to analogy, in such a case.
> > and wasn't this about words particular to Germanic, notOK. (Better check before jumping feet-first into the discussion.)
> > inherited from PIE?
>
> They are found in Celtic, Germanic, Baltic, Slavic and Baltic
> Finnic, occasionally in Latin (the 'mots populaires') and Greek.
>
> Torsten