From: johnvertical@...
Message: 65851
Date: 2010-02-13
> > > > > BTW, since the IE m.nom.sg *-s and the IE s-stem *-s- seemOkay. Then what does Finnic have to do with it?
> > > > > to have the same reflection in Finnish, are they somehow
> > > > > related in IE,
> > If a frequently used Germanic case
> > was taken as a new stem in Finnic, it is reanalysis on the Finns'
> > part and implies nothing about the origin of the Germanic form.
>
> No, you misunderstand me again. I proposed that the *IE* s-stems were based on a reinterpretation of the *IE* genitive -Vs as nominative (which BTW I think is the origin of the IE nom.sg. -(V)-s.
> > > > They've the same reflection in Finnish because of theI've not idea what you're trying to say, but I'm saying that Finnic has no *z and therefore must substitute *s, ie. there's nothing phonetically suspicious in a substitution such as *xrengaz > *renkas.
> > > > phonetical similarity.
> > >
> > > Why should that be? Phonetical similarity of what?
> >
> > That both are -s/-z.
> >
> > > But the problem is here that this s-stem *-s# in the nominative
> > > must be earlier than PGmc,
> >
> > Oldest loans into Finnic are thought to predate PGmc.
> > (*z would also naturally be substituted by *s, if that's what
> > you're worried about.)
>
> Of course not, since -z- occurs outside of nom.sg.
> BTW your -´VsV- > -´VhV- > -´VV- theoryIt's not "mine", it's the long-accepted standard.
> doesn't work for the -s / no -s alternation cited here:What do you mean? Sure it does. The illativ may be a point of confusion, as there's some analogy going on there:
> http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/63871
>
> Torsten