From: Piotr Gasiorowski
Message: 64460
Date: 2009-07-29
> ****GK: What if the loan was the "plk" rather than "plg" word (both haveSlavic *pUlkU definitely looks like Germanic *fulkaz borrowed through
> similar semantics)? That would of course still leave the "no Slavic 'f'"
> problem.
> But as to this: is there a rule as to when Slavs incorporatedThe phoneme /f/ developed independently and at different times in
> the foreign "f" without automatically substituting a "p"? There are
> medieval examples (and of course many modern ones). Is there anything
> which precludes early Slavic from having done this? Or should I entitle
> an article I am presently working on "The failed empire of King Parzoi"
> (if I wish to eruditely (:=))) indicate how early Slavs might have
> pronounced this Aorsan monarch's [ruled ca. 45-70 CE] name? ****