From: george knysh
Message: 64459
Date: 2009-07-28
--- On Mon, 7/27/09, Piotr Gasiorowski <gpiotr@...> wrote:
On 2009-07-27 00:39, george knysh wrote:
> On the other hand if the Slavic and Baltic terms are borrowings from
> Germanic, this would imply a time before the Grimm shift./.../
Had it been borrowed before the operation of Grimm's Law, we would have
Baltic and Slavic *g at the end of the root. Neither Baltic nor early
Slavic had an /f/ phoneme, so the substitution /f/ -> /p/ in a loan is
normal and expected (as in Old Polish personal names of foreign origin
like Szczepan 'Stephen', Pabian 'Fabian', etc.).
Piotr
****GK: What if the loan was the "plk" rather than "plg" word (both have similar semantics)? That would of course still leave the "no Slavic 'f'" problem. But as to this: is there a rule as to when Slavs incorporated the foreign "f" without automatically substituting a "p"? There are medieval examples (and of course many modern ones). Is there anything which precludes early Slavic from having done this? Or should I entitle an article I am presently working on "The failed empire of King Parzoi" (if I wish to eruditely (:=))) indicate how early Slavs might have pronounced this Aorsan monarch's [ruled ca. 45-70 CE] name? ****