Re: Mid-first century BCE Yazigian prerequisites

From: tgpedersen
Message: 64427
Date: 2009-07-26

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, gknysh@... wrote:
> --- On Sun, 7/26/09, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
> --- In cybalist@... s.com, george knysh <gknysh@> wrote:
> >
> >
> > --- On Sat, 7/25/09, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@ ...> wrote:
> >
> > --- In cybalist@... s.com, george knysh <gknysh@> wrote:
> > >
> > > --- On Fri, 7/24/09, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@ ...> wrote:
> > >
> > > Why do you keep mentioning Wielbark?
> > >
> > > GK: Because that is another local culture where inhumations
> > > appear "suddenly". And Wielbark replaces a cremation culture
> > > (Oksywie). Wielbark is bi-ritual, and there is nothing in the
> > > funeral inventory to suggest alien ethnic influx.
> >
> > Except that we know there was.
> >
> > GK: Not until the later 1rst c. AD and at that time the
> > biritual system was already in place. There is no evidence it came
> > from Scandinavia.
>
> Inhumation had started in Scandinavia at that time in a culture
> that till then was exclusively cremating.
>
> ****GK: You have offered no evidence as to this for the period
> prior to the formation of Wielbark (which emerged in the first
> decades of the 1rst c.)

Yawn.
http://tech.groups.yahoo.com/group/cybalist/message/11540

> and no evidence that the inhumation burials
> of this early Wielbark came from Scandinavia.

Well, those newcomers did, and they probably wanted to be buried like in the old country.


> The opinion of professional archaeologists seem to me to be
> preferable to those of ideological Snorrists.*****

I could of course invent the word 'anti-Snorrist', stick it onto you by repetition until it stuck and then smear your character with it, but I don't have much experience in that line of reasoning.

> > > That makes it similar to the 1rst c. BCE Przeworsk inhumations,
> > > and to Eggers' and Lichardus' Elbe Germanic situation.
> >
> > Yes it does. It also, as your argument stands, gives us a
> > precedence of a culture which we know has foreign influence,
> >
> > GK: It's really wonderful to see how addiction to a fantasy
> > interferes with the most elementary mental processes. There is a
> > big difference between "foreign influence" and "foreign influx",
> > and normally you can appreciate this. But when your knee-jerk
> > Snorrism activates the most obvious distinctions are forgotten
> > and/or jettisoned. As evidenced by your further comments below.
>
> That's how you usually behave to cover up shaky reasoning. The text
> you refer takes much pains to claim Scandinavian influence instead
> of Scandinavian influx and then goes on about the traces of the
> Scandinavians who supposedly weren't there.
>
> ****GK: You seem to have as much difficulty in understanding
> English texts as French ones. The author accepts the fact of
> Scandinavian influx after the mid- 1rst c. AD (he even gives you
> the precise location of the incoming communities.) The Wielbark
> culture of the 2nd c. is a fusion of Continental and Scandinavian
> ethna.

He thinks is.

> Not so the earlier Wielbark. And biritualism already existed in
> this pre-Scandinavian arrival Wielbark.****

No matter whether inhumation arrived in Wielbark from Scandinavia or from Pomerania it is a new and till then unknown custom.

> > which changes to inhumation, and yet has no detectable foreign
> > influence in the find material. Since it is similar to the 1rst
> > c. BCE Przeworsk inhumations, and to Eggers' and Lichardus' Elbe
> > Germanic situation they therefore also have non-detectable
> > foreign influence. Own goal.
> >
> > GK: But they have a good argument for the source of this
> > "foreign influence". You on the other hand, don't.
>
> But they don't. They don't point to a single structural similarity
> between the much earlier Celtic graves and those two (three)
> inhumation schools.
>
> ****GK: You've read the article Wozniak cites? It seems to point
> out precisely that. You're dissatisfied with Lichardus' and Eggers'
> analyses? You've read the sources they cite for their opinion on
> the Przeworsk inhumations you place so much hope in? *****

No, but I'm going to, since you can't.


> > Thank you, George, for providing me with this wonderful argument.
> > BTW And you call *me* dense?
> >
> > GK: Snorrism seems to be not only a serious but apparently an
> > incurable mental affliction.. .
>
> Mattflykt, say the Swedes.
>
> > > My view is that the Wielbark shift might have been influenced
> > > by the earlier Marbod shift since the Gutones were part of his
> > > empire.
> >
> > My view is that Wielbark shift was influenced by the immigrating
> > Goths who were an original people of Scandinavia leaving because
> > of the invasion of inhumating Germani, but being lead by some of
> > them, therefore the partial inhumation fashion.
> >
> > GK: Re-read this:
> > http://www.muzarp poznan.pl/ archweb/gazociag /title5.htm
> >
> > There is no evidence for "immigrating Goths" from Scandinavia
> > until the second half of the 1rst c. The author surmises Wielbark
> > biritualism was influenced from Pomerania. But he leaves the
> > question open and assigns the choice to "family traditions". Your
> > own "theory" is just a set of arbitrary assertions without a
> > shred of evidence to back them up.
>
> The fact that many cemeteries Oksywie cemeteries continued into
> Wielbark means the incoming Scandinavians didn't kill them or chase
> them off, at least not all of them. How that can be interpreted to
> mean that no one arrived is beyond me.
>
> ****GK: Probably because there is no material evidence proving
> Scandinavian presence at this early formative period (1-ca.40/50)
> of Wielbark. Snorrist ideology doesn't seem to cut it with
> professional archaeologists.*****

People tend to die at the end of their lives decades after having done interesting other things.

> Here's your 'foreign influence' as opposed to 'foreign influx':
> 'Wielbark communities comprised mostly members of tribes already
> settled in this area with the addition of Scandinavian migrants'
> Obviously, Mackiewicz is the one who can't distinguish properly
> between 'foreign influence' and 'foreign influx' which failure you
> then in your confused mind accuse me of.
>
> ****GK: Pablum for Torsten: M. accepts Scandinavian "outside"
> influence for the formative period of Wielbark.(The Polish text is
> actually less yielding on this point. It says "at the most" for the
> English version's "possibly": that's how far M. is willing to go
> with the "traditional" view (now rejected) of Gothic invasionism).

So he is willing to go further with his home audience in rejecting the old paradigm than with a foreign one?
I don't trust this guy.

> He also accepts a Scandinavian influx in the latter part of the
> 1rst c. CE. There is sound archaeological evidence for it. And the
> words you have cited above refer to the situation which developed
> after that influx.****
>

So first the Scandinavians influenced the Wielbark culture, and then they arrived, some decades later? Amazing how much nonsense you can write in one paragraph.


Torsten