From: tgpedersen
Message: 64424
Date: 2009-07-26
>Inhumation had started in Scandinavia at that time in a culture that till then was exclusively cremating.
>
>
> --- On Sat, 7/25/09, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@...> wrote:
>
>
> --- In cybalist@... s.com, george knysh <gknysh@> wrote:
> >
> > --- On Fri, 7/24/09, tgpedersen <tgpedersen@ ...> wrote:
> >
> > Why do you keep mentioning Wielbark?
> >
> > GK: Because that is another local culture where inhumations
> > appear "suddenly". And Wielbark replaces a cremation culture
> > (Oksywie). Wielbark is bi-ritual, and there is nothing in the
> > funeral inventory to suggest alien ethnic influx.
>
> Except that we know there was.
>
> ****GK: Not until the later 1rst c. AD and at that time the
> biritual system was already in place. There is no evidence it came
> from Scandinavia.***
> > That makes it similar to the 1rst c. BCE Przeworsk inhumations,That's how you usually behave to cover up shaky reasoning. The text you refer takes much pains to claim Scandinavian influence instead of Scandinavian influx and then goes on about the traces of the Scandinavians who supposedly weren't there.
> > and to Eggers' and Lichardus' Elbe Germanic situation.
>
> Yes it does. It also, as your argument stands, gives us a
> precedence of a culture which we know has foreign influence,
>
> ****GK: It's really wonderful to see how addiction to a fantasy
> interferes with the most elementary mental processes. There is a
> big difference between "foreign influence" and "foreign influx",
> and normally you can appreciate this. But when your knee-jerk
> Snorrism activates the most obvious distinctions are forgfotten
> and/or jettisoned. As evidenced by your further comments below.***
> which changes to inhumation, and yet has no detectable foreignBut they don't. They don't point to a single structural similarity between the much earlier Celtic graves and those two (three) inhumation schools.
> influence in the find material. Since it is similar to the 1rst c.
> BCE Przeworsk inhumations, and to Eggers' and Lichardus' Elbe
> Germanic situation they therefore also have non-detectable foreign
> influence. Own goal.
>
> ****GK: But they have a good argument for the source of this
> "foreign influence". You on the other hand, don't.****
> Thank you, George, for providing me with this wonderful argument.Mattflykt, say the Swedes.
> BTW And you call *me* dense?
>
> ****GK: Snorrism seems to be not only a serious but apparently an
> incurable mental affliction...*****
> > My view is that the Wielbark shift might have been influenced byThe fact that many cemeteries Oksywie cemeteries continued into Wielbark means the incoming Scandinavians didn't kill them or chase them off, at least not all of them. How that can be interpreted to mean that no one arrived is beyond me.
> > the earlier Marbod shift since the Gutones were part of his
> > empire.****
>
> My view is that Wielbark shift was influenced by the immigrating
> Goths who were an original people of Scandinavia leaving because of
> the invasion of inhumating Germani, but being lead by some of them,
> therefore the partial inhumation fashion.
>
> *****GK: Re-read this:
> http://www.muzarp.poznan.pl/archweb/gazociag/title5.htm
>
> There is no evidence for "immigrating Goths" from Scandinavia until
> the second half of the 1rst c. The author surmises Wielbark
> biritualism was influenced from Pomerania. But he leaves the
> question open and assigns the choice to "family traditions". Your
> own "theory" is just a set of arbitrary assertions without a shred
> of evidence to back them up.