From: alexandru_mg3
Message: 64173
Date: 2009-06-13
>A late thematicisation SUPPOSES that the original a- was reshaped in e- ==> so here is WELL POSSIBLE isn't it? But for monere is not possible ...:) What LOGIC IS THIS --> to apply on one side the argument and the same argument not to apply on another.
> On 2009-06-13 01:37, alexandru_mg3 wrote:
>
> > Secondly if swenh- has -h2- in the root is difficult to explain why OIr
> > seinn has an e/o inflection
>
> A late thematicisation. As you evidently have checked it up in LIV, you
> must have seen Zehnder's comment. *swenh2- was an original root present.
> > So is better to consider sona:re as a denominative derived from sonus.-eye- formations in Sanskrit are regulars. Almost each verb has such o formation. This means nothing.
>
> I'm not sure it's better. It doesn't explain the Lat. perfect. Given all
> the evidence that we have, <sono:> and <tono:> are most likely old
> iteratives patly assimilated to the first conjugation _precisely_
> because ot their root-final *h2, colouring the suffix. Another
> well-known example is <domo:> 'tame' (*demh2-). They _all_ have exact
> counterparts in Sanskrit (<svanáyati, stanáyati, damáyati>; note the
> short vowel of the root, unlike <ma:náyati>). Just a coincidence? ;-
> Why the oldest? Why not a false third-conjugation form based on theFor sure we don't know. But we have some hints:
> shared type of perfect?
>
> Piotr