Re: Latin /a/ after labials, IE *mori

--- In cybalist@yahoogroups.com, "Carl Edlund Anderson" <cea@...> wrote:

>
> I have recently been wondering about Proto-Italic *mari (Latin mare) alongside PIE *mori, and happened across this old thread while trying to figure out the apparent /o/ > /a/ change. However, the thread seems to raise more questions than it answers! :)
> So I figure it's worth asking the list's collective wisdom again:
> How can this Italic /a/ alongside PIE /o/ as in *mari/*mori be explained? Is it a change of the vowel after a labial as suggested? (I had also wonder if the following /r/ had an effect?) Is the Latin word from a zero grade form? Or ...?
>
> Any ideas? :)
>
> Cheers,
> Carl

The rules are:
--------------------------------------------------------
1.a mo-CV- > ma-CV- (so in open syllable)

mori- > mare
mon- > manus

2.a mork/g- > mark/g-

morg^o:n > margo:
mr.keh1- > morce:- > marce:re
--------------------------------------------------------


Similar rules are:
2.a wo-CV- > wa-CV- (so in open syllable)
2.b work/g- > wark/g- (r+velar)



Marius