From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 62661
Date: 2009-01-30
>========
> No. This is not the point I tried to make. You misunderstand. What I
> have been saying all the time is that transcriptional variation in the
> Pumpokol data is completely normal. It is normal to the extent that we
> cannot really rely on them, we can hardly infer anything from a
> difference in the non-native orthography caused by imperfect
> perception and transcription by non-native speakers.
>
> If you have a better explanation, please, put it forth right now and
> here. Is /but/ a loanword? Then state clearly where it could be from.
>========
> No, Pumpokol doesn't have /a/ in /tat/. It has /a/ in /tataN/, which
> is the plural form. The variation is parallel to Ket/Yugh/Kottish
> singular /-e-/ versus plural /-a-/. Hence, we could reconstruct */ses/
> in the singular and */sas/ in the plural (in the post-tonogenetic
> Yeniseic). Is there a way to explain this by the Uralic origin?
>
>==========
>> How come that none of the languages surrounding Basque share its
>> typological profile? Why has Basque not influenced Romance
>> considerably?
>>
>> ======
>>
>> Because Basque is a fossil language !
>> A.
>> ====
>
> Please, define what "fossil language" is. I do not see how this can be
> an explanation of anything in any way.
> Ok. So, what are the homelands of the Proto-Uralians,===========
> Proto-Tungus-Manchurians, Proto-Koreans, Proto-Turkish, Proto-Japonic
> in your opinion? I would like to know more about the picture you
> envisage.
>=======
> Well, I disagree. Why would the burden of proof that Yeniseic is NOT
> from somewhere else than where it is located today or from somewhere
> else than the oldest records seem to suggest be on MY shoulders?
>=======
>> I have already provided about 20 clean cognates between Yeniseic and PIE
>> and you have provided NOTHING that supports Siberian autochthony.
>
> They are comparanda rather than cognates. Nobody has accepted your
> theory yet. Yes, it might change in the future, I might even be the
> first one to accept it, why not, but 20 examples are a very weak
> proof, if proof at all. Just keep up the work and prepare a more
> detailed, more convincing, more coherent theory and I am ready to
> accept it once it makes a good sense. I am by no means against that
> possibility a priori.
>=======
>> By the way, Maloletko who is the collector of the hydronyms we are
>> discussing makes Yeniseic come from the Caucasus Area.
>>
>> A.
>> ========
>
> Why not, but arguments does he have? I just insist that Yeniseic may
> have been spoken in Siberia for a bit longer time than you propose.
> Yes, it may have come from a totally different area some time in the
> deeper past, but you have not given us evidence enough to reject their
> "autochthonous origin". (Moreover, what does autochthonous mean?) The
> formerly Yeniseic speaking areas may have been overridden by
> non-Yeniseic speakers leaving little or no traces. Substrate influence
> is not obligatory. Its extent cannot be predicted, especially when we
> do not know what the socio-linguistic situation was like.
> Anyway, precisely which typological features link Yeniseic to PIE, for=======
> example (apart from the 4-way gender system) and how stable
> diachronically are these features?
> Moreover, you somewhat neglect the geological history of that region,========
> Arnaud.
> By the way, does archaelogy support your hypothesis at least indirectly?
>
> Dear Arnaud, what is so "stalinist" (a term which is really insulting========
> in relation to the past of my country, but I am an easy-going person
> ;-), so...let us forget about it) in demanding more evidence?
> glimpses you have offered are simply not enough and I wonder who on======
> this forum thinks they are.
> am not trying to discourage you, do not take it as a negative========
> approach. I just need something to be able to say: "Wow, this is it!"
> All I can say at the moment is: "Hm, maybe..." and "Hm, why not?" at
> best.
>
> You know, what we need is a system of correspondences that is both
> productive and predictive, which we do not have at present.
> Interlocking jigsaw pieces, Yeniseic explaining PIE explaining
> Yeniseic.
>
> Cordially and supportingly,
>
> Petr
>
> P.S.: I have not forgotten about the conditioning factors, no worries!=========
> ;-) Yet still, you have not answered my question: If /t/ is not a
> reflex of */s/ in Yeniseic, what is? And if all the /t/-cognates in
> Pumpokol are Uralic, what is left? And if nothing is left, did
> Proto-Yeniseic have */s/ at all? And if it did not have */s/, are all
> those */s/-etyma loanwords from Uralic?
>
> You know, claiming that the /t/-correspondence does not exist in the
> native lexicon may have (de)vast(ing) implications.