From: stlatos
Message: 62011
Date: 2008-12-11
>Unless IE originated in Greece there were other inhabitants beforehand.
>
> ----- Original Message -----
> From: "stlatos" <stlatos@...>
>
> With this meaning of the word in place its oddity of use in ancient
> sources becomes more clear. From the point of view of historical
> Greeks, both "indigenous" people AND earlier waves of Greek conquerors
> were both older inhabitants who could be described as Pelastikoi.
> Though there may have been confusion even at that time, the apparent
> use for both does not itself indicate confusion; saying that P. lived
> there before Greeks and that P. were Greeks would mean that there were
> non-Greeks, then Greeks, then other Greeks.
>
> Going as far back as I can, the sequence would be:
>
> ?
> non-IE people
> Indo-Iranian-speaking conquerors
> Greek conquerors 1
> Greek conquerors 2
> Greek conquerors 3
>
> ==========
>
> Why should be the first layer be non IE ?
> We have plenty of connections with Anatolian.Plenty of words have been considered as borrowings by some, some
>
> Where were proto-Greek speakers,
> if Indo-Iranian (??) arrived before proto-Greeks ?
> Where are the traces that Indo-Iranian (??) ever existed in Greece ?
>
> I don't buy a word of this theory.