From: tgpedersen
Message: 61575
Date: 2008-11-13
>from an earlier post:
> On 2008-11-12 13:48, tgpedersen wrote:
>
> > If *sindhno- > San, then Sando-mierz get a logical explanation
> > too.
>
> What logical explanation? What is the -mierz < -mirjI part supposed
> to mean?
> > Note that Udolph is having problems with an -e-/-a- alternationquote again:
> > here too.
>
> Udolph's etymology of <San> has been demolished in more recent
> literature. First of all, there's no real basis for the
> reconstruction of a nasal vowel or a *d in this name,
> or for the reading of any of its Polish variants as *sia,n (or theNo *sia,n anywhere in that article. You must mean *sje,n? If they not
> like).
> Secondly, if the reconstruction *seN(d)nU < *sindH-no-s wereOh? Where J. Rieger then pick up those forms quoted above?
> correct, Ukr. Sjan would have to be regarded as more archaic than
> the Polish form; in fact, however, all the attestations of the name
> in old texts (until the fifteenth century), in both East Slavic and
> Polish sources, show <San(U)>, not <S'an(U)>.
> No palatality is indicated in Polish sources of any age, and in1007 is late? Compared to what?
> Ukrainian the /s'/ seems to be late and secondary.
> All that makes *seNdnU entirely fictitious.Something here is fictitious alright.
> The most likely original form of the name is just *sanU, sansUnfortunately, it seems the scribes weren't aware of that.
> embellissement.
> The ultimate etymology is anybody's guess. _For example_, it couldYou mean 'the satisfied river'? That can't be later than 1917.
> be *sah2-no- 'full, strong', from the root *sah2(i)- 'make full,
> satiate' (cf. Istros < *h1ish2-ro-), or anything of the sort.