From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 61410
Date: 2008-11-05
----- Original Message -----
From: "Rick McCallister" <gabaroo6958@...>
>
> --- On Tue, 11/4/08, Brian M. Scott <BMScott@...> wrote:
> . . .
> Note too that we sometimes
>> underestimate the percentage of loans in some other
>> languages. French, for instance, borrowed quite
>> extensively
>> from Latin at various times, but because it's a Romance
>> language, we tend not to notice this.
>>
> . . .
>>
>> Brian
>
> Is there a term for this intra-family borrowing that has made modern
> Spanish and Portuguese look closer than their medieval ancestors?
> Both Spanish and Portuguese have flor "flower" but Medieval Portuguese was
> fror and chor /Sor/, common in Medieval Spanish and modern rural Spanish
> is jlor /hlor/. Spanish and Portuguese borrowed from one another but also
> from Catalan, Italian, French and Latin to such a large degree that
> lexico-chronology has them splitting c. 1500. In American Spanish and
> Portuguese, things got even more muddied between Spanish and Portuguese to
> the extent that regional, slang and rural terms in one language are often
> the standard terms in the other.
> Slavic languages, I am told, do the same.
> And I imagine Scandinavian problably does the same as well.
>
==============
The issue you are raising is interesting because it may have played a role
in the reason why PIE "seems" to have split so late.
Arnaud