Re: Re[4]: [tied] Re: [pieml] Labiovelars versus Palatals + Labiovel

From: Arnaud Fournet
Message: 61203
Date: 2008-11-02

----- Original Message -----
From: "Rick McCallister" <gabaroo6958@...>

--- On Sat, 11/1/08, Arnaud Fournet <fournet.arnaud@...> wrote:

. . .
> I don't know much about Spanish,
> but your examples suggest /g/ is dropped in the context
> g+u+vowel in some
> Spanish dialects,
> they say nothing about /w/ being a phoneme.
> Arnaud

You do need to know that Spanish has no dialects per se. It has regional
accents but these are very fluid with most differences at the basolect.

This definitely sounds strange.
Standard Castillon distinguishes s and z
Andalusian does not.
This is enough to think there are dialects.

And your use of "accent" sounds to be the same thing as dialects.

And "no dialects" but "most differences at the basolect"
Obvious self-contradiction ??



<guV> is pronounced /wV/ by almost all speakers I run into. Occasionally
you'll hear a Spaniard pronounce it /GwV/, where /G/ is a fricative but I
don't recall any native speakers ever saying /gwV/.
So show some /weBos/ and admit you're wrong.
Conventional proof that /w/ is a phoneme in Spanish is seen in the lack of
accent mark in continuo --in Spanish, /kontinuo/ would be written *contínuo
because words ending in vowels are normally stressed on the next to the last
syllable. But given that Spanish considers <i> and <u> as weak vowels, they
become /y/ and /w/ next to another vowel unless marked by a written accent


What proves uo is not a vocalic diphthongue ? like ue ?

I'm afraid you still have not understood that it takes more than just
exhibit a word with the sound [w] to assert that this is a phoneme /w/
otherwise /dz/ is a phoneme in English because you find it in <reds>

I guess Managua is [managwa] not [manaGwa]