From: fournet.arnaud
Message: 57774
Date: 2008-04-21
----- Original Message -----
From: "mkelkar2003" <swatimkelkar@...>
To: <fournet.arnaud@...>
Sent: Sunday, April 20, 2008 11:14 PM
Subject: [Courrier indésirable] In response to Wtizel's work
These have been posted on Cybalist many times. Enjoy!
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Shrikant_G._Talageri
http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/english/documents/AITandscholarship.pdf
http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/english/documents/reply_to_witzel.pdf
http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/english/documents/RigVedicTownandOcean.pdf
http://www.omilosmeleton.gr/english/documents/ReplytoWitzelJIES.pdf
M. Kelkar
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Dear M. Kelkar,
Thank you for the references.
I can see nothing that really addresses the linguistic arguments _against_ a
possible origin in India.
Namely :
- retroflex consonants are a typical areal feature of India,
- all words in Indic referring to things tropical and native to India are
obviously of non PIE origin,
These facts are explained (quite nicely) by Indic having integrated a non
PIE substrate.
Until a satisfactory alternative explanation has been provided for these
basic linguistic facts, OIT does not make sense.
Arnaud
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